"Venous Leak" or elsewise "Venous-Occlusive Dysfunction" is a common pathology in patients with organic erectile dysfunction. However, we often see men 20-40 years old who had a history of excellent erectile capacity in the past to be diagnosed with "Venous Leak". How is it  that erectile dysfunction occurs in these young men with medical-free history? Could it be a medical fallacy or is it a real disorder?